Math Problem 2)

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penfold1992
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Math Problem 2)

Post by penfold1992 »

alright i dno where to start... this is probably much harder then what Crimson posted but still

Show that 1/r! - 1/(r+1)! = r/(r+1)!

and if some1 asks. r is any number... r doesnt equal something specifically.

if you need another clue i know it has something to do with proof by induction

good luck :)

thanks in advance too this is in meh homework for half term
EDIT:

HENCE find an expression, in terms of n, for
1/2! + 2/3! +3/4!+......+n/(n+1)!
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by CeLL »

I havent been in school in a while whats "!" stand for?
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by EvGa »

! is factorial. So 4! = 4*3*2*1.
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by CeLL »

o ****, have fun man.
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by only_me »

penfold1992 wrote: Show that 1/r! - 1/(r+1)! = r/(r+1)!


multyply 1/r! with r+1 and u ll have r+1/(r+1)!

and r+1/(r+1)! - 1/(r+1)! its r/(r+1)! . simple no ?:O
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by Sylar »

only_me wrote:
penfold1992 wrote: Show that 1/r! - 1/(r+1)! = r/(r+1)!


multyply 1/r! with r+1 and u ll have r+1/(r+1)!

and r+1/(r+1)! - 1/(r+1)! its r/(r+1)! . simple no ?:O


if you multiply 1/r! with r+1 you'll get r+1/r! , no ?
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by penfold1992 »

only_me wrote:
penfold1992 wrote: Show that 1/r! - 1/(r+1)! = r/(r+1)!


multyply 1/r! with r+1 and u ll have r+1/(r+1)!

and r+1/(r+1)! - 1/(r+1)! its r/(r+1)! . simple no ?:O


u need that for the HENCE bit.. which is what i cant do lol
that bits fine for me. its the other bit :)
i missed it out when i wrote problem but thats my fault -.-

and to that above me...
he ment multiply with r+1/r+1 because thats 1.. its a equal fraction so its ok :)
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by .AWAKE. »

the answer is 4.
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by Toasty »

the answer is: true.

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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by penfold1992 »

.AWAKE. wrote:the answer is 4.

you forgot to carry the 1.
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by Blindfire »

r = 1.

1/1-1/(1+1)=1/(1+1)

so 2/2 - 1/2 = 1/2.

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Re: Math Problem 2)

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Permutations suck. Junior year was great though. Babs taught me...well, nothing i remember.
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by CeLL »

Blindfire wrote:r = 1.

1/1-1/(1+1)=1/(1+1)

so 2/2 - 1/2 = 1/2.

thats surprisingly simple...
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by /Pi »

1.1?

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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by DumboDii »

Blindfire wrote:r = 1.

1/1-1/(1+1)=1/(1+1)

so 2/2 - 1/2 = 1/2.


That's what I got too. But there could be more numbers which fulfil the formula so I wonder if solving one variable is enough.
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by penfold1992 »

DumboDii wrote:
Blindfire wrote:r = 1.

1/1-1/(1+1)=1/(1+1)

so 2/2 - 1/2 = 1/2.


That's what I got too. But there could be more numbers which fulfil the formula so I wonder if solving one variable is enough.


it works for all whole numbers above 0 at least. -.- it didnt prove it at all it just showed that it was true.

put 98363928692038694 as r and i bet you get the same outcome -.-

the reason is... because a PROOOF shows that. thats why the proof was necesarry before you do the 2nd part of the question.
proof by induction. kudos to any1 who actually does it rather then puts numbers into a formula already known to be true. also if it wasnt true why would it have a equal sign there?
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by KillAndChill »

penfold1992 wrote:
DumboDii wrote:
Blindfire wrote:r = 1.

1/1-1/(1+1)=1/(1+1)

so 2/2 - 1/2 = 1/2.


That's what I got too. But there could be more numbers which fulfil the formula so I wonder if solving one variable is enough.


it works for all whole numbers above 0 at least. -.- it didnt prove it at all it just showed that it was true.

put 98363928692038694 as r and i bet you get the same outcome -.-

the reason is... because a PROOOF shows that. thats why the proof was necesarry before you do the 2nd part of the question.
proof by induction. kudos to any1 who actually does it rather then puts numbers into a formula already known to be true. also if it wasnt true why would it have a equal sign there?

Proof by induction is different than just proving an equation with variables. There are 2 main parts:
1)Prove the base case (the first case aka n=0)
2)Assuming the nth (any n) case is true, prove the (n+1)st case is also true

He proved it, just not by induction.
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by evilpeta »

1/1! - 1/2! = 1/2!
1 - 1/2 = 1/2
1/2 = 1/2 => 1

1/R! - 1/(R+1)! = R/(R+1)!
(R+1)!/R! - (R+1)!/(R+1)! = R
(R+1) - 1 = R
R = R => 1

1/(R+1)! - 1/(R+2)! = (R+1)/(R+2)!
(R+2)!/(R+1)! - (R+2)!/(R+2)! = R+1
(R+2) - 1 = R+1
R+1 = R+1 => 1

-----------------------------------

∑ n/(n+1)! = ∑ [n+1-1/(n+1)!] = ∑ [(n+1)/(n+1)!] - ∑ [1/(n+1)!] = ∑ (1/n!) - ∑ [1/(n+1)!] =
∑ [1/n! - 1/(n+1)!] -> telescopic series

(1/1! - 1/2!) + (1/2! - 1/3!) + (1/3! - 1/4!) + ... + (1/n! - 1/(n+1)!) = .. (note: bold terms means they cancel)
1/1! - 1/(n+1)! = 1 - 1/(n+1)!
Last edited by evilpeta on Sat Oct 24, 2009 12:30 am, edited 6 times in total.
wat

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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by SidiousX »

I fcking hate math.
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by penfold1992 »

KillAndChill wrote:Proof by induction is different than just proving an equation with variables. There are 2 main parts:
1)Prove the base case (the first case aka n=0)
2)Assuming the nth (any n) case is true, prove the (n+1)st case is also true

He proved it, just not by induction.


hmm i see what you mean... but the sum of series between r=1 and n of
r/(r+1)! cannot be solved by proving it in the way he did.

seeing as you know what proof by induction is.. (unless u googled it haha)
wna give it a go :)... at least thats what i think needs to be done :S
summing series requires proof by induction? hmm cant be right... maybe summing of 1/x and such... **** FURTHER MATHS! WHY DID I TAKE IT!
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Re: Math Problem 2)

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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by KillAndChill »

penfold1992 wrote:
KillAndChill wrote:Proof by induction is different than just proving an equation with variables. There are 2 main parts:
1)Prove the base case (the first case aka n=0)
2)Assuming the nth (any n) case is true, prove the (n+1)st case is also true

He proved it, just not by induction.


hmm i see what you mean... but the sum of series between r=1 and n of
r/(r+1)! cannot be solved by proving it in the way he did.

seeing as you know what proof by induction is.. (unless u googled it haha)
wna give it a go :)... at least thats what i think needs to be done :S
summing series requires proof by induction? hmm cant be right... maybe summing of 1/x and such... **** FURTHER MATHS! WHY DID I TAKE IT!

I would do it, but I hate it. It was a big part of my test today and I don't wanna ever do it again, lol.
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by penfold1992 »

hahaha this subject is absolute shite right? thats why i posted, i cant be asked with this stupid subject anymore xD
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Re: Math Problem 2)

Post by evilpeta »

i saw series in highschool and during integral calculus in the university, it was clearly the lighter and easier part of the subject lol. if you think summing series is shit, once you see diferential equations or multivariable calculus you will pull your ball hairs out! :banghead:
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